Was reading a book written by an American the other day and he used the first example which makes me itch in a literary sense. It just seemed a little lazy to me - doesn't feel right without the "of" in there. Then I wondered if it was one of those little weird things that separates how Brits and Americans use English and figured you'd be the first person to go to 

And I have no idea of whether it's grammatically correct. Now that I'm thinking about it I can't tell. Why?